1) why would I bother finding evidence for what is the commonly-held orthodoxy? Pick up any newspaper that mentioned it in the last 70 years and they´ll say the same thing.
This is nonsense.
Whether the Holomodor was a genocidal event or not is one of the most heavily contested areas of the history of genocide.
2) I was looking to elicit exactly what the difference between the Holomodor and the Bengal Famine was for the people who view them as qualitatively different.
What does this mean?
3) I don´t see the semantics here as being particularly important. Certainly not in comparison to the self-justification of western capitalism that is related to these two cases.
How can you argue that semantics are unimportant when your original argument, even the title of this thread, is a semantic question?


