frogwoman
Let them eat newts
The Balfour Declaration predates the Holocaust by a few decades.
exactly.
even if the holocaust hadn't happened, Israel would still exist IMO
The Balfour Declaration predates the Holocaust by a few decades.
The Balfour Declaration predates the Holocaust by a few decades.
what did that declare again? i forget
Except that, even in a states as virulently anti-semitic as either France or Tsarist and then Soviet Russia, there was never an organised system of exploitation and extermination. That only happened in Nazi Germany, and Hitlerite anti-semitism was a whole order of magnitude more foul than the German anti-semitism that preceded it. "Traditional" anti-semitism was emotional and cultural. It was violent but sporadic. Nazi anti-semitism was systematic, instrumental to the Nazi state (in that it served the Nazi economy), and "racial".
Anyone who "might say" that European anti-semitism culminated in the Holocaust would be expressing a profound ignorance of the differences I've mentioned above.
it was 'Germany' rather than 'Europe' that [was responsible for] the holocaust.
exactly.
even if the holocaust hadn't happened, Israel would still exist IMO
The zionist movement was well underway before (starting in the early 1900's, and there were already problems between jewish immigrants and the palestinian arabs by the time that ww2 had begun). And it was well underway because of European anti-semitism, to relate what i said in previous posts more to the original topic.
The reasons why the Palestinians were uncomfortable with zionism are in no way analogous to either "traditional" European anti-semitism or the racialised nature of the Nazi state
I also think anti-semitism wasn't the only reason why zionism attracted support, especially because the earlier (and more influential) supporters of zionism in Western Europe, especially, were often assimilated Jews who had even adopted other religions - Herzl, for example, advocated baptising Jewish children before they were "old enough to know better"
Absolutely. I neglected to point out those were based on economic/political conflicts created by the zionist movement. Though there was the rather nasty mufti of Jerusalem - 'traditional/religious' anti-semite.
But traditional antisemitism in Europe was hardly just religious, as evidenced by the inquisition, one basis which Herzl, for example, was a zionist?
During WW1, when the Brits were kicking Ottoman ass, Balfour sent a letter to Lord Rothschild, declaring britain's support for the creation of a jewish homeland in Palestine, which was part of the Ottoman Empire at that time.
beginning in the 19th century, people were trying to discover a "scientific" basis for the "evil of Jewry", and categorise the jews, like everyone else, into racial groups ...
was it just religion before all this or was it interchangeable with percieved ethnicity (as in cultural grouping)? why were they doing what you mention in a 'golden age' of secular thought? isn't it possible that modern racism transfers what was in part ethno-cultural hostility towards jews (which was fostered by ruling elites as it was convenient for them as well), and not judaism, as such? religious prejudice can be a function of many things, besides theology, including percieved social interests.
As I recall the Balfour Declaration was not made public at the time. So it could hardly be said to have been made as anything other than as part of a private deal by the Cabinet of the time in return for something that Rothschild could offer a Government sorely pressed in wartime.
Also, balfour was not acting on behalf of the entire British govt but as a private individual.
good point. i'm not saying that religion was the only reason for anti-semitism, which has changed through time, and certainly in the 19th century anti-semitism assumed a "racial" rather than "religious" character.
it's a mistake to see the 19th c as a "golden age" of anything imo, yes a lot of very important developments did come from the enlightenment but often they were "bad" as well as "good"
scientific racism was different to the old cultural prejudices of the past as it was an attempt to scientifically prove which races were inferior, or otherwise. and the zionist movement was actually a completely secular movement at the beginning
so basically he was just one guy making a statement?
so basically he was just one guy making a statement?
i personally find it amazing that jews have survived for such a long time and have such widely differing languages, traditions and beliefs in different countries and i think that diversity should be celebrated rather than the idea that jewish people are all exactly the same and "should" believe exactly the same thing and observe the torah and their other traditions in exactly the same way (ie, the western/european way).
As I recall the Balfour Declaration was not made public at the time. So it could hardly be said to have been made as anything other than as part of a private deal by the Cabinet of the time in return for something that Rothschild could offer a Government sorely pressed in wartime.

It's because Muslims are the new Bogeymen. Israel is the perfect ally for that.ironically, these days it seems to be people like the BNP who support Israel the most:
http://bnpDOTorgDOTuk/2008/04/the-bnp-and-anti-semitism-a-response-to-the-board-of-deputies/
guilty conscience maybe?
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So advocation and then execution of a plan of mass extermination wasn't a change of content?Those are instrumental differences, not differences of content.
No, it was begun several hundred years previously, reached a nadir with "The Protocols...", but was deployed as a (pseudo)-scientific theory based around some of the principles of eugenics by the Nazis.Even the racism 'racialised' jewish-ness in the same manner it had been already constructed, and in the first place was not begun by the nazis.
I haven't claimed that it couldn't.I'm not ignorant of those differences. What I'm quite ambivalent towards is the extent that
It certainly could not have happened without 100's of years of pre-existing hostility towards Jews.
Not really. He had a team of learned and eloquent advisors, one of whom was Herbert Samuels, who had a slight agenda...so basically he was just one guy making a statement?
It certainly could not have happened without 100's of years of pre-existing hostility towards Jews.
So advocation and then execution of a plan of mass extermination wasn't a change of content?
No, it was begun several hundred years previously, reached a nadir with "The Protocols...", but was deployed as a (pseudo)-scientific theory based around some of the principles of eugenics by the Nazis.
I haven't claimed that it couldn't.
What I'm quite ambivalent towards is the extent that
it was 'Germany' rather than 'Europe' that [was responsible for] the holocaust.
It's because Muslims are the new Bogeymen. Israel is the perfect ally for that.
And of course, just like Balfour, they'd be delighted if all the British Jews moved to Israel.

adc - your comment about Nazism being the 'culmination' of European anti-semitism is where people have the issues. This implies that there was some kind of 'direction' or 'aim' of anti-semitism throughout European history, which of course there wasn't - anti-semitism has waxed and waned throughout the history of Europe throughout the second millenium for a huge array of issues, and as has been pointed out, even in the times of the inquisition, was never, ever made the heart of a whole sociopolitical system the way it was under Nazism.
Yeah it could. Scapegoating is a piece of piss. The historical element made it easier for sure
, but the Holocaust could have happened if the Nazis had started calling the Jews scum in the 1930s. Hate, especially in times of economic hardship, is easy to create, manipulate and direct
especially if you control almost all media outlets and the state itself is actively colluding in such propaganda.