TremulousTetra
prismatic universe
but Chris Harman does say the "success of Keynesianism" in the post-war period was not as a result of increasing the consumptive power of the working-class, but that the increased taxes, to fund Cold War armaments, acted as a siphon away from overinvestment. Now either you have misrepresented views callinicos , or he has completely contradicted Harman. I know for fact that both people believe/argue that overproduction is the cause of crisis.
Now overproduction, and under consumption, are part of the tautology. You can only have overproduction, over investment in the means of production, in so far as society is not able to profitably consume all that is produced, under consumption. You can only have overproduction, because the working classes etc do not have the financial means to buy what they need, under consumption. You cannot simply replace under consumption by the working classes etc, by increased consumption by the ruling class
the working-class demand for food clothing etc, does not play the same role in the economy as the capitalist demand for investment, on this Keynes and the under consumptionists was right.
Now overproduction, and under consumption, are part of the tautology. You can only have overproduction, over investment in the means of production, in so far as society is not able to profitably consume all that is produced, under consumption. You can only have overproduction, because the working classes etc do not have the financial means to buy what they need, under consumption. You cannot simply replace under consumption by the working classes etc, by increased consumption by the ruling class
Workers only have demand to consume what is produced. The capitalists demand is not for consumption, but for investment. Their capital seeks investment in the productive process so Labour can add value to their investment, so they can accumulate. As Marx said the capacity for the feudal lord to stimulate production was limited by the girth of his belt, by the amounts he could consume, the capacity of the capitalist to stimulate production is endless, because he only stimulates investment in production, to make profits to reinvest in production, to make profits to reinvest in production. He accumulates accumulates, that is his raison d’etre.This certainly reduces the value of working class "demand", but increases the value of the "demand" available to bankers, the rich etc. by the same amount. Hence as working class demand reduces, rich demand increases - but the total demand remains the same.
the working-class demand for food clothing etc, does not play the same role in the economy as the capitalist demand for investment, on this Keynes and the under consumptionists was right.

