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Things that I've always wondered. Please tell me to fuck off if you like :)

If you played an advantage and a player (on either side) quickly committed a sending off offence that led to no advantage would you go back for the first offence, and would they be sent off?

If a spectator grappled the keeper into the goal after they'd made a save on the line, how would the game restart?

Team A is leading. Team B's player deserves to be sent off, but, if they go, the game would have be abandoned. Would you send them off?
 
chooch said:
If you played an advantage and a player (on either side) quickly committed a sending off offence that led to no advantage would you go back for the first offence, and would they be sent off?

Elaborate, please. I'm not entirely sure what you mean.

If a spectator grappled the keeper into the goal after they'd made a save on the line, how would the game restart?

Interference by an outside agent. Stop play, once said agent is removed, drop ball from wherever it was when play was stopped. Try and find out which team the spectator is with (if any), and report the incident to the County FA.

Team A is leading. Team B's player deserves to be sent off, but, if they go, the game would have be abandoned. Would you send them off?

Depends what it was for. If it would be a second yellow for persistent infringement which all consists of tiny little fouls, or if it's for one of the entering/leaving the field of play offences, I'd probably apply Law 18 and try and let it go if possible. Anything else, though, and they'd walk, and I'd let the County FA deal with the abandonment. It's likely that Team B would be charged with causing a match to be abandoned.
 
At school I remember not being allowed to shout 'Mine!' or otherwise distract an opposing player. I can't remember whether we were allowed to shout our names when going for the ball. Is that a rule for grown-ups too, or something peculiar to school matches in the late 70s?

Btw, have you seen the ref for the Chelsea match tonight. He's a man monster!
 
Dirty Martini said:
Btw, have you seen the ref for the Chelsea match tonight. He's a man monster!

Rene Temmink of Holland. A cross between a pig and a brick shithouse. He's about seven feet tall and at least double that wide, although you wouldn't want to say that to his face.

At school I remember not being allowed to shout 'Mine!' or otherwise distract an opposing player. I can't remember whether we were allowed to shout our names when going for the ball. Is that a rule for grown-ups too, or something peculiar to school matches in the late 70s?

You're allowed to call for the ball if you're going for it. You're not allowed to if you're doing it to an opponent to decieve him: indirect free-kick and yellow card for unsporting behaviour.
 
ta very much :)
Wowbagger said:
Elaborate, please. I'm not entirely sure what you mean.
OK. Player on Team A fouls player on Team B. You play an advantage, but, mere seconds later, player on Team B does something very very very naughty. Do you go back for the original foul or blow up for the new foul, and does the Team B player go off?
Interference by an outside agent. Stop play, once said agent is removed, drop ball from wherever it was when play was stopped.
Aye. Would this mean a drop ball on/very close to the line then, putting one team at enormous disadvantage?
 
chooch said:
OK. Player on Team A fouls player on Team B. You play an advantage, but, mere seconds later, player on Team B does something very very very naughty. Do you go back for the original foul or blow up for the new foul, and does the Team B player go off?

Depends on how you define 'mere seconds'. If it's within about five seconds of the first foul and if Team B haven't, er, taken advantage of the advantage yet, then you go back and take the first foul. If they've had the advantage, however, then it's the second offence you ping. In both cases, the player from Team B is sent off.

Would this mean a drop ball on/very close to the line then, putting one team at enormous disadvantage?

No. Drop balls or indirect free-kicks to the attackers awarded inside the goal area are taken back to the edge of it.
 
Wowbagger said:
You're allowed to call for the ball if you're going for it. You're not allowed to if you're doing it to an opponent to decieve him: indirect free-kick and yellow card for unsporting behaviour.

I went to Reading vs QPR at the Madejski, where Jamie Cureton (QPR) was sent off for losing his rag with Steve Sidwell (Reading). It turned out that Sidwell had shouted 'Jacks' as the ball was played to Cureton (a call that traditionally means that the receiving player should let the ball run). Cureton dummied the ball, as he had no idea that an opposition player had made the call, and the ball went straight to Sidwell. The ref didn't stop play, at least until Cureton had a pop at Sidwell - Cureton furious as Sidwell had cheated/been sneaky and got away with it.

I assume the ref didn't take any immediate action because he didn't hear the call. In this respect, how likely is it that a ref will both hear the call and accurately decide that the call was deliberately made to confuse an opponent? I think it would be fair to say that it was reasonably obvious from Cureton's reaction what Sidwell had done, so in the absence of hearing the call can the ref take action based upon obvious evidence of a deliberately confusing call?
 
No. You can't punish someone for something you haven't seen or heard them do.

At that level, I'd say it's a lot less likely for one of them to be able to hear players talking on the pitch than me, because they do a lot of work on blocking crowd noise out and I'd imagine that unless they're specifically unblocking themselves to talk to a player, the players' shouting and calling just blends in with the crowd, which might also be why not enough people get cards for dissent.

There's also another possibility. I did play football myself in my youth (insofar as I can be considered as having a 'youth'), I've attended a lot of top level games, refereed a lot of men's matches, and not once have I heard anyone call "Jack's!", unless their name is Jack and they're going for a high ball. It's quite possible that Richard Beeby hadn't heard of it either until then.
 
Wowbagger said:
No. You can't punish someone for something you haven't seen or heard them do.

At that level, I'd say it's a lot less likely for one of them to be able to hear players talking on the pitch than me, because they do a lot of work on blocking crowd noise out and I'd imagine that unless they're specifically unblocking themselves to talk to a player, the players' shouting and calling just blends in with the crowd, which might also be why not enough people get cards for dissent.

I remember you mentioning upthread that you're likely to be behind play for a significant part of the game, in some cases quite a distance from the ball, and hence isn't it unlikely that you'll hear calls made by players to other players near the ball? In which case, aren't laws prohibiting deliberate misleading of an opposition player impractical to enforce? I appreciate that (in the event you're in the vicinity of the call) you're more likely to hear it than a player as you aren't trying to block out background noise, however it does depend upon you being in the vicinity. Also, calls are specifically made with the intention of alerting someone, in the case I mentioned Sidwell fully intended Cureton to hear him, which Cureton demonstrably did.

I would also suggest that many decisions are influenced by player reaction, unfortunately I have only heard Billy Bowden (cricket umpire) speak on the matter, but he uses player reaction as a guiding factor in his decisions. Assuming this occurs in football, surely Cureton's reaction would have suggested to the referee (Richard Beeby, I assume) that an offence had occured? Whilst I appreciate that the referee can't actually call the offence, surely he could use it as a mitigating factor? I'm not a QPR or a Reading fan, however it seemed particularly harsh that Cureton was sent off when it was reasonably clear to many people that Sidwell was the instigator of the situation. This is almost a seperate issue, I dislike the idea that retaliation should be treated more harshly than the initial offence, especially when the reaction is inflamed by a lack of punishment for the initial offence.

Wowbagger said:
I did play football myself in my youth (insofar as I can be considered as having a 'youth'), I've attended a lot of top level games, refereed a lot of men's matches, and not once have I heard anyone call "Jack's!", unless their name is Jack and they're going for a high ball. It's quite possible that Richard Beeby hadn't heard of it either until then.

Even if you don't recognise the actual terminology used (I only heard the exact phrase when we went to the lounge at the end of the game), it was quite clear that Sidwell had called for the ball to be allowed to run, knowing full well that Cureton would assume that the caller was on his own team.
 
mattie said:
I remember you mentioning upthread that you're likely to be behind play for a significant part of the game, in some cases quite a distance from the ball, and hence isn't it unlikely that you'll hear calls made by players to other players near the ball?

Depends how loud they are. I can hear some goalkeepers shouting from the other end of the pitch when I'm on the other goal line for a corner, and I know I've got a loud enough voice to bollock players from fifty yards away. I can't hear players whispering to each other or talking normally unless I'm breathing down their necks, but I can hear them *calling* (which implies to me a reasonably loud shout) from a good distance away.

In which case, aren't laws prohibiting deliberate misleading of an opposition player impractical to enforce? I appreciate that (in the event you're in the vicinity of the call) you're more likely to hear it than a player as you aren't trying to block out background noise, however it does depend upon you being in the vicinity.

Based on a faulty premise. See above.

Also, calls are specifically made with the intention of alerting someone, in the case I mentioned Sidwell fully intended Cureton to hear him, which Cureton demonstrably did.

If I'd been there in Beeby's place, I wouldn't have done anything because I'd have had no idea what the call actually meant (it's all very well for other people to say things after the fact, but if I made decisions on that basis then I'd just end up giving everything to whoever appealed first). I would, however, have pulled Sidwell as soon as possible and given him a bollocking along the lines of "I've got no idea what that thing you shouted means, but if I hear you do it again I'll be down on you like a ton of bricks".

I would also suggest that many decisions are influenced by player reaction, unfortunately I have only heard Billy Bowden (cricket umpire) speak on the matter, but he uses player reaction as a guiding factor in his decisions. Assuming this occurs in football, surely Cureton's reaction would have suggested to the referee (Richard Beeby, I assume) that an offence had occured? Whilst I appreciate that the referee can't actually call the offence, surely he could use it as a mitigating factor?

I don't ping free-kick offences based on player reactions. Nobody does.

Well, with the exception that when I'm on my own I don't give offside unless the defenders ask me for it, but that's a personal decision and if anyone from the County is reading this, I'm just joking.

But anyway. Where player reactions are useful is in when deciding whether something is a red card, yellow card, bollocking, or nothing at all. For example, a player who's committing several small fouls. I don't like cautioning people, so if one player makes a couple of little trips and that little shove and that little push and who's just made another little trip, and I think he needs some sort of warning, I look at how the opponents are reacting. If they haven't noticed, I'll use Law 18 and give him a bollocking. If they do start to notice, and they're starting to make their feelings known with that tackle, I'll give him a louder bollocking so the other team can hear me. If the other team have been complaining since his second foul, then I'll start applying a stricter interpretation of persistent infringement and will have bollocked him for the foul he did previously, and so he'll be up for the caution this time.

This also applies to a number of other things: for example, a player with a clean slate who commits a foul tackle from behind which I'm not sure is yellow or not. If it's the first such foul in the match, and/or the reaction from the opposition is not much, then I'll consider it careless and give the player a warning. If there's been other fouls like it before, and/or it causes a reaction from the other team, he goes in the book. Also, a player who during a dead ball gives a two-handed shove to the chest of an opponent. If nothing more happens because of it, caution for unsporting behaviour. If he kicks off a melee, then I upgrade it to violent conduct.

The fact still remains, however, that if I don't understand in the situation in question what's just happened fully, I can't give cards. My ideal response would be to give an indirect free-kick to the team who lost the ball because of the call and to bollock the player who called "I don't understand what you said, but I think I know what it means now so don't do it again", but I can't do that in case there's an assessor or other person who knows his way around the LOAF present.

I'm not a QPR or a Reading fan, however it seemed particularly harsh that Cureton was sent off when it was reasonably clear to many people that Sidwell was the instigator of the situation. This is almost a seperate issue, I dislike the idea that retaliation should be treated more harshly than the initial offence, especially when the reaction is inflamed by a lack of punishment for the initial offence.

Each offence is treated individually at the time. Unsporting behaviour is unsporting behaviour, and violent conduct (which is what Cureton resorted to) is violent conduct. You don't go taking the laws into your own hands. You accept the decision and get the fuck on with the game. If someone slaps you, you don't compound things by nutting him or spitting at him, you take a step back. It's not acceptable behaviour, and sliding the punishment for offences up and down depending on whether they were committed in retaliation would leave us having to think too much. I don't want to *have* to think too much about the why, just about the what. There's not the time to. Judges can think about the why, because they can take two weeks to. I have two seconds when I'm lucky.

(No, that's not a veiled criticism of offside, which everyone rattles on about being horribly complicated to apply, but when you actually get out on the line it's a piece of piss, and anyone who says otherwise is just a crap assistant).
 
Not sure if this has been asked before but can you tell me if I have got this right...

Me and my mate were arguing as to why a freekick for obstuction is not given when a player shields the ball while it is going out for a goal kick. Everyone always ALWAYS says that "if that had happened anywhere else on the pitch it would be a foul". But the way I understand it, if the ball is at your feet, you are defined as being in possession of the ball (even if you haven't touched the ball) and therefore it cannot be obstruction - is that right? And is it right that you needent have touched the ball for it to be in your possession as long as it is in playing distance of you feet?
 
That's right. I think the objection is when they aren't just in possession but go out of their way to obstruct the opposition player.
 
CyberRose said:
Not sure if this has been asked before but can you tell me if I have got this right...

Me and my mate were arguing as to why a freekick for obstuction is not given when a player shields the ball while it is going out for a goal kick. Everyone always ALWAYS says that "if that had happened anywhere else on the pitch it would be a foul". But the way I understand it, if the ball is at your feet, you are defined as being in possession of the ball (even if you haven't touched the ball) and therefore it cannot be obstruction - is that right? And is it right that you needent have touched the ball for it to be in your possession as long as it is in playing distance of you feet?

Yep, you've got the basic gist of it. Playing distance was unfortunately taken out of the LOAF in 1997 (and I shan't get started on that otherwise I'll be here all afternoon), but it does still exist in Advice on the Application of the LOAF, a rather handy little booklet filled with advice along the lines of "If Player X does Y, interpret it as caution offence C1 and caution him." This has just been made available online (albeit in the 2003 revision rather than the 2004, but a skim-read doesn't show anything that's not in the current version, which will be slightly out of date for next year anyway because I'm sure they'll have things to say about two metres at a throw and judging offside on head, torso and legs) here (pdf!), courtesy the excellent Julian Carosi.

However, there are of course a couple of things I also need to mention: it's not obstruction any more, it's impeding the progress of an opponent; fairly shielding the ball means just that, you can put your body in the way, but you still can't push or hold or charge an opponent trying to get the ball; the problem with a lot of incidents where a player shields the ball back to the goalkeeper or the goal line is when he then stops well short of it, resulting in the ball running back out of his playing distance before reaching the goalkeeper or the line, in which case he is then liable to be pinged for impeding or charging, depending on what he actually does thereafter. A bit of good preventative refereeing from the ref or assistant (if present and on that line) is often useful there in just verbally reminding the player to stay with the ball all the way out.
 
hey wowbagger,
if the referee finds a player guilty of handball and awards a direct free kick to the other team and doesn't give the offending player a card, then the same player does the same thing a short while later, another direct free kick is given and again, no cards are shown.
is the referee implementing the rules correctly?

should that player not have been given two yellows?
 
Deliberate handball is just that and there is a very large amount of discretion involved in how you punish it: there's no advice or requirement that it always (or, indeed, ever) should be considered unsporting behaviour and it's not a cautionable offence in its own right.
 
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